🧪 NCLEX Pathology MCQs (Part 4: Questions 151–200)
Welcome to Part 4 of our NCLEX Pathology MCQs series (151–200). This section continues our comprehensive collection of nursing exam questions designed to prepare students for the NCLEX exam and other international nursing licensure tests. Each question includes accurate answers and clear explanations, ensuring you not only memorize facts but also understand the underlying concepts. Whether you’re preparing for NCLEX-RN, NCLEX-PN, or nursing school exams, these practice questions will strengthen your knowledge and test-taking confidence.
Q.151. Which is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
- A. Coronary artery embolism
- B. Coronary artery spasm
- C. Atherosclerotic plaque rupture with thrombosis
- D. Viral myocarditis
Answer: C. Atherosclerotic plaque rupture with thrombosis
Explanation: The majority of MIs result from rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque and subsequent thrombus formation in coronary arteries.
Q.152. Reed-Sternberg cells are diagnostic of:
- A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
- B. Hodgkin lymphoma
- C. Burkitt lymphoma
- D. Multiple myeloma
Answer: B. Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation: Reed-Sternberg cells are large, binucleated “owl’s eye” cells seen in Hodgkin lymphoma.
Q.153. Which type of shock is caused by severe infection and endotoxins?
- A. Hypovolemic shock
- B. Cardiogenic shock
- C. Septic shock
- D. Anaphylactic shock
Answer: C. Septic shock
Explanation: Septic shock is due to overwhelming infection, most often Gram-negative bacteria releasing endotoxins.
Q.154. Which genetic condition is associated with increased risk of colon cancer?
- A. Marfan syndrome
- B. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Fragile X syndrome
Answer: B. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Explanation: FAP causes hundreds of colon polyps, nearly all of which progress to colorectal cancer if untreated.
Q.155. Which kidney disease shows “crescent formation” in glomeruli?
- A. Minimal change disease
- B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
- D. Diabetic nephropathy
Answer: C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Explanation: RPGN is marked by crescents formed by proliferating epithelial cells and fibrin.
Q.156. Which disease involves accumulation of Gaucher cells?
- A. Niemann-Pick disease
- B. Tay-Sachs disease
- C. Gaucher disease
- D. Pompe disease
Answer: C. Gaucher disease
Explanation: Gaucher cells are lipid-laden macrophages seen in Gaucher disease, a lysosomal storage disorder.
Q.157. Which condition shows “tram-track” appearance in renal biopsy?
- A. Minimal change disease
- B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
- C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- D. IgA nephropathy
Answer: B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation: MPGN is characterized by double-contour “tram-track” glomerular basement membrane.
Q.158. Which is the most common cause of chronic liver disease in the USA?
- A. Hepatitis A
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Hepatitis C
- D. Alcohol
Answer: D. Alcohol
Explanation: Alcohol abuse remains the leading cause of chronic liver disease in the USA.
Q.159. Which lung disease shows “honeycomb lung” in end-stage fibrosis?
- A. Sarcoidosis
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
- D. Pneumonia
Answer: C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation: Progressive fibrosis of lung tissue leads to honeycomb appearance.
Q.160. Which hematologic condition shows Auer rods in blasts?
- A. ALL
- B. AML
- C. CML
- D. CLL
Answer: B. AML
Explanation: Auer rods are needle-like inclusions in myeloblasts, diagnostic for acute myeloid leukemia.
Q.161. Which is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Viral hepatitis
- C. Autoimmune hepatitis
- D. Hemochromatosis
Answer: B. Viral hepatitis
Explanation: In many parts of the world, hepatitis B and C are the leading causes of cirrhosis.
Q.162. Which endocrine tumor is associated with “10% rule”?
- A. Pituitary adenoma
- B. Pheochromocytoma
- C. Insulinoma
- D. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Answer: B. Pheochromocytoma
Explanation: Pheochromocytomas follow the 10% rule: 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extra-adrenal.
Q.163. Which type of necrosis is seen in acute pancreatitis?
- A. Coagulative necrosis
- B. Fat necrosis
- C. Caseous necrosis
- D. Gangrenous necrosis
Answer: B. Fat necrosis
Explanation: Enzymatic fat necrosis occurs due to lipase release in pancreatitis.
Q.164. Which infection causes cervical cancer?
- A. EBV
- B. HPV
- C. HSV
- D. CMV
Answer: B. HPV
Explanation: High-risk HPV types (16, 18) cause cervical carcinoma.
Q.165. Which condition shows “apple peel” intestinal malformation?
- A. Hirschsprung disease
- B. Jejunal atresia
- C. Meckel’s diverticulum
- D. Pyloric stenosis
Answer: B. Jejunal atresia
Explanation: Vascular accident in utero leads to apple peel appearance of intestines.
Q.166. Which disease is caused by defective chloride channels (CFTR gene)?
- A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Sickle cell anemia
- D. Hemophilia
Answer: B. Cystic fibrosis
Explanation: Mutation in CFTR gene causes abnormal chloride transport and thick mucus secretions.
Q.167. Which parasite is strongly linked to bladder cancer?
- A. Schistosoma haematobium
- B. Plasmodium falciparum
- C. Entamoeba histolytica
- D. Giardia lamblia
Answer: A. Schistosoma haematobium
Explanation: Chronic infection with Schistosoma haematobium increases bladder cancer risk.
Q.168. Which bone tumor shows “sunburst” pattern on X-ray?
- A. Osteosarcoma
- B. Chondrosarcoma
- C. Ewing’s sarcoma
- D. Multiple myeloma
Answer: A. Osteosarcoma
Explanation: Osteosarcoma produces sunburst periosteal reaction radiographically.
Q.169. Which disease shows “butterfly rash” on the face?
- A. Psoriasis
- B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- C. Dermatomyositis
- D. Rosacea
Answer: B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation: Malar (butterfly) rash is a classic sign of SLE.
Q.170. Which tumor marker is elevated in prostate cancer?
- A. CA-125
- B. PSA
- C. AFP
- D. CEA
Answer: B. PSA
Explanation: Prostate-specific antigen is used to detect and monitor prostate cancer.
Q.171. Which autoimmune condition shows “anti-centromere antibodies”?
- A. SLE
- B. Sjögren’s syndrome
- C. Limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome)
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: C. Limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome)
Explanation: Anti-centromere antibodies are typical of CREST variant of scleroderma.
Q.172. Which brain tumor is associated with “psammoma bodies”?
- A. Glioblastoma
- B. Meningioma
- C. Medulloblastoma
- D. Oligodendroglioma
Answer: B. Meningioma
Explanation: Meningiomas often show psammoma bodies (calcified whorls).
Q.173. Which disease is associated with “spoon-shaped nails” (koilonychia)?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Pernicious anemia
Answer: B. Iron deficiency anemia
Explanation: Koilonychia is a sign of long-standing iron deficiency anemia.
Q.174. Which tumor is called the “tumor of infancy”?
- A. Wilms tumor
- B. Neuroblastoma
- C. Retinoblastoma
- D. Medulloblastoma
Answer: B. Neuroblastoma
Explanation: Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial solid tumor in infants.
Q.175. Which condition shows “flea-bitten” appearance of kidneys?
- A. Acute glomerulonephritis
- B. Malignant hypertension
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Polycystic kidney disease
Answer: B. Malignant hypertension
Explanation: Petechial hemorrhages produce flea-bitten appearance in kidneys.
Q.176. Which infection is linked to hepatocellular carcinoma?
- A. Hepatitis A
- B. Hepatitis B and C
- C. EBV
- D. CMV
Answer: B. Hepatitis B and C
Explanation: Chronic HBV and HCV infections increase risk of liver cancer.
Q.177. Which cancer shows “pencil-thin” stools as a symptom?
- A. Lung cancer
- B. Gastric cancer
- C. Colon cancer
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Answer: C. Colon cancer
Explanation: Narrow stools suggest obstructive colon cancer.
Q.178. Which condition shows “blue sclera”?
- A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
- B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
- C. Marfan syndrome
- D. Rickets
Answer: A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation: Blue sclera occurs due to defective collagen in osteogenesis imperfecta.
Q.179. Which disease shows “starry-sky” appearance in the liver?
- A. Viral hepatitis
- B. Fatty liver
- C. Cirrhosis
- D. Malaria
Answer: A. Viral hepatitis
Explanation: In acute hepatitis, hepatocytes show starry-sky appearance due to cell death and inflammation.
Q.180. Which cancer is most common in women worldwide?
- A. Breast cancer
- B. Cervical cancer
- C. Lung cancer
- D. Ovarian cancer
Answer: A. Breast cancer
Explanation: Breast cancer is the leading cancer in women globally.
Q.181. Which blood disorder is associated with “tea-colored urine”?
- A. Sickle cell anemia
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Thalassemia
- D. Aplastic anemia
Answer: B. Hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Hemolysis releases hemoglobin, causing dark urine.
Q.182. Which tumor arises from chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla?
- A. Neuroblastoma
- B. Pheochromocytoma
- C. Wilms tumor
- D. Ganglioneuroma
Answer: B. Pheochromocytoma
Explanation: Pheochromocytomas secrete catecholamines, causing hypertension.
Q.183. Which lung condition shows “caseating granulomas”?
- A. Sarcoidosis
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Silicosis
Answer: B. Tuberculosis
Explanation: TB produces caseating granulomas in the lungs.
Q.184. Which tumor is associated with elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- C. Breast cancer
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Answer: B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation: AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors.
Q.185. Which disease shows “ring sideroblasts” in bone marrow?
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Aplastic anemia
- D. Thalassemia
Answer: B. Sideroblastic anemia
Explanation: Ring sideroblasts are iron-loaded mitochondria around the nucleus.
Q.186. Which tumor commonly causes hypercalcemia due to PTHrP secretion?
- A. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
- B. Adenocarcinoma of lung
- C. Small cell carcinoma of lung
- D. Renal cell carcinoma
Answer: A. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
Explanation: Squamous cell carcinoma secretes PTHrP, causing paraneoplastic hypercalcemia.
Q.187. Which disease is characterized by “non-caseating granulomas”?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Sarcoidosis
- C. Syphilis
- D. Histoplasmosis
Answer: B. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: Sarcoidosis shows non-caseating granulomas in multiple organs.
Q.188. Which tumor is most common in children’s kidneys?
- A. Wilms tumor
- B. Neuroblastoma
- C. Renal cell carcinoma
- D. Angiomyolipoma
Answer: A. Wilms tumor
Explanation: Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) is the most common kidney cancer in children.
Q.189. Which condition shows “string sign” in intestines?
- A. Crohn’s disease
- B. Ulcerative colitis
- C. Intestinal TB
- D. Colon cancer
Answer: A. Crohn’s disease
Explanation: Narrowing of bowel lumen produces string sign on imaging.
Q.190. Which disease is linked with “anti-dsDNA antibodies”?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. SLE
- C. Sjögren’s syndrome
- D. Scleroderma
Answer: B. SLE
Explanation: Anti-dsDNA antibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus.
Q.191. Which condition is associated with “bronze diabetes”?
- A. Wilson’s disease
- B. Hemochromatosis
- C. Addison’s disease
- D. Cushing’s disease
Answer: B. Hemochromatosis
Explanation: Excess iron deposition causes bronze skin, diabetes, and cirrhosis.
Q.192. Which tumor shows “Rosette formation” on histology?
- A. Retinoblastoma
- B. Meningioma
- C. Glioblastoma
- D. Oligodendroglioma
Answer: A. Retinoblastoma
Explanation: Retinoblastoma shows Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes.
Q.193. Which condition is associated with “pigeon breeder’s lung”?
- A. Asthma
- B. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
- C. COPD
- D. Tuberculosis
Answer: B. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation: Pigeon breeder’s lung is due to inhaled organic antigens causing hypersensitivity reaction.
Q.194. Which condition shows “ground-glass opacity” in lungs on CT scan?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. COVID-19 infection
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Emphysema
Answer: B. COVID-19 infection
Explanation: COVID-19 pneumonia typically shows bilateral ground-glass opacities.
Q.195. Which enzyme deficiency causes alkaptonuria?
- A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
- B. Homogentisate oxidase
- C. Tyrosinase
- D. Alpha-galactosidase
Answer: B. Homogentisate oxidase
Explanation: Alkaptonuria results from deficiency of homogentisate oxidase, causing dark urine.
Q.196. Which condition shows “tram-track” calcification in skull X-ray?
- A. Sturge-Weber syndrome
- B. Tuberous sclerosis
- C. Neurofibromatosis
- D. Meningioma
Answer: A. Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation: Intracranial calcifications with port-wine stain are seen in Sturge-Weber.
Q.197. Which condition is associated with defective dystrophin gene?
- A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- B. Becker muscular dystrophy
- C. Both A and B
- D. Myotonic dystrophy
Answer: C. Both A and B
Explanation: Dystrophin mutations cause Duchenne (severe) and Becker (milder) muscular dystrophy.
Q.198. Which cancer is most common worldwide?
- A. Breast cancer
- B. Lung cancer
- C. Prostate cancer
- D. Colorectal cancer
Answer: B. Lung cancer
Explanation: Lung cancer is the most common cancer worldwide and the leading cause of cancer death.
Q.199. Which disease is associated with “Kayser-Fleischer rings”?
- A. Hemochromatosis
- B. Wilson’s disease
- C. Alzheimer’s disease
- D. Huntington’s disease
Answer: B. Wilson’s disease
Explanation: Copper deposition in cornea produces Kayser-Fleischer rings.
Q.200. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with nephrotic syndrome?
A) Elevated serum creatinine
B) Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day ✅
C) Hematuria
D) Low serum potassium
Correct Answer: B) Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day
Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is defined by heavy proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. Creatinine may be normal or slightly elevated, hematuria is not a defining feature, and potassium levels are usually unaffected.
🔗 Previous: NCLEX Pathology MCQs-Part 1(1-50)
🔗 Previous: NCLEX Pathology MCQs – Part 2 (51–100)
🔗 Previous: NCLEX Pathology MCQs-Part 3 (101-150)
You’ve now completed NCLEX Pathology MCQs Part 4 (151–200). 🎉
For a full review of all pathology questions. Also, don’t forget to check out our other NCLEX practice sets in Pharmacology, Physiology, Anatomy, and Microbiology to cover every aspect of the exam. Consistent practice is the key to success—keep learning, and you’ll ace your nursing exams! 🚀