Welcome to Part 2 of NCLEX Fundamentals of Nursing MCQs (51–100). After completing the first 50 questions, it’s time to take your preparation one step further. This section brings another 50 high-quality NCLEX practice questions that focus on nursing roles, clinical judgment, vital signs, infection prevention, patient safety, and communication in healthcare settings.
Each question is designed according to the NCLEX test plan and includes the correct answer with a detailed explanation. This ensures that you not only practice but also understand the reasoning behind every choice, which is essential for building strong clinical decision-making skills.
Whether you’re preparing for the NCLEX-RN, NCLEX-PN, or any international nursing exam, these MCQs will help sharpen your knowledge and boost your confidence.
✅ NCLEX Fundamentals of Nursing MCQs (Part 2: 51–100)
Q51. A nurse is checking the radial pulse of a patient. What is the normal adult pulse rate?
- A. 40–60 beats per minute
- B. 60–100 beats per minute ✅
- C. 100–120 beats per minute
- D. 120–140 beats per minute
Answer & Explanation:
The normal adult pulse rate is 60–100 beats per minute. A rate below 60 is called bradycardia, while a rate above 100 is tachycardia. Monitoring pulse helps assess cardiovascular function and detect abnormalities.
Q52. A nurse is preparing to measure a patient’s blood pressure. Which artery is most commonly used?
- A. Radial artery
- B. Femoral artery
- C. Brachial artery ✅
- D. Carotid artery
Answer & Explanation:
The brachial artery is the most common site for measuring blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer. It provides an accurate reflection of systemic blood pressure.
Q53. What is the primary purpose of using hand hygiene in nursing practice?
- A. To keep hands clean only
- B. To prevent the spread of infection ✅
- C. To reduce odor
- D. To make patients feel safe
Answer & Explanation:
Hand hygiene is the most effective method to prevent hospital-acquired infections. It removes microorganisms and reduces the risk of transmission between patients and healthcare providers.
Q54. Which of the following is considered a sterile body site?
- A. Mouth
- B. Skin
- C. Urinary bladder ✅
- D. Nose
Answer & Explanation:
The urinary bladder is normally sterile. Introduction of pathogens can cause urinary tract infections (UTIs). In contrast, areas like the mouth and skin naturally harbor microorganisms.
Q55. Which is the most accurate method for measuring core body temperature?
- A. Oral thermometer
- B. Axillary thermometer
- C. Tympanic thermometer
- D. Rectal thermometer ✅
Answer & Explanation:
The rectal thermometer provides the most accurate measure of core body temperature. Oral and axillary readings are less reliable, while tympanic is fast but can be influenced by earwax.
Q56. A nurse observes a patient experiencing dyspnea. What does this term mean?
- A. Difficulty swallowing
- B. Difficulty breathing ✅
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Low blood sugar
Answer & Explanation:
Dyspnea means difficulty in breathing. It may occur in conditions like asthma, pneumonia, or heart failure. Nurses must assess severity and provide immediate interventions if breathing is compromised.
Q57. A patient asks why they need a low-sodium diet. The nurse explains it helps prevent:
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypertension ✅
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Anemia
Answer & Explanation:
A low-sodium diet is recommended for patients with hypertension and heart disease, as excess sodium causes fluid retention and raises blood pressure.
Q58. Which of the following positions is best for a patient with shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Fowler’s position ✅
- D. Sims’ position
Answer & Explanation:
Fowler’s position (sitting upright at 45–90 degrees) facilitates lung expansion, improves breathing, and enhances oxygenation in patients with respiratory distress.
Q59. A nurse finds that a patient’s oxygen saturation is 89%. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Document and continue routine care
- B. Recheck in 1 hour
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen ✅
- D. Call the physician immediately
Answer & Explanation:
An oxygen saturation of 89% is below normal (95–100%) and requires immediate intervention. The nurse should apply supplemental oxygen before notifying the physician.
Q60. A nurse is teaching a patient about cough etiquette. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Cough openly in the air
- B. Cover mouth with hands
- C. Use tissue or elbow to cover mouth and nose ✅
- D. Do not cough at all
Answer & Explanation:
Cough etiquette prevents spread of respiratory infections. Patients should cover their mouth with a tissue or elbow, dispose of tissues properly, and perform hand hygiene.
Q61. The best site to check an infant’s pulse is:
- A. Radial artery
- B. Carotid artery
- C. Apical pulse ✅
- D. Brachial artery
Answer & Explanation:
In infants and young children, the apical pulse is the most reliable because peripheral pulses (radial, carotid) may be difficult to palpate accurately.
Q62. Which is the most important step before administering a medication?
- A. Ask the patient’s family about allergies
- B. Check the drug price
- C. Verify the patient’s identity ✅
- D. Ask the patient if they like the medicine
Answer & Explanation:
The five rights of medication administration include: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. Verifying patient identity prevents dangerous errors.
Q63. Which is the best position for a patient after lumbar puncture?
- A. Prone
- B. Supine (lying flat) ✅
- C. Fowler’s
- D. Sims’
Answer & Explanation:
After a lumbar puncture, patients should lie flat on their back to reduce the risk of spinal headache caused by CSF leakage.
Q64. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
- A. 8–12 breaths/min
- B. 12–20 breaths/min ✅
- C. 20–28 breaths/min
- D. 30–40 breaths/min
Answer & Explanation:
Normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 (bradypnea) or above 20 (tachypnea) require assessment.
Q65. Which vitamin is necessary for blood clotting?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Vitamin E
- D. Vitamin K ✅
Answer & Explanation:
Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors. Its deficiency can cause bleeding disorders.
Q66. Which of the following is an example of a contact precaution?
- A. Wearing a mask for TB patients
- B. Using gloves and gowns for MRSA patients ✅
- C. Keeping the patient in negative-pressure room
- D. Providing oxygen therapy
Answer & Explanation:
Contact precautions (gloves, gowns, dedicated equipment) are required for infections like MRSA and C. difficile to prevent spread through direct/indirect contact.
Q67. The nurse should avoid giving oral medications to patients who:
- A. Have fever
- B. Have nausea
- C. Are unconscious ✅
- D. Are elderly
Answer & Explanation:
Oral medications should not be given to unconscious patients due to the risk of aspiration. Alternative routes (IV, IM) must be used.
Q68. Which fluid is most commonly used for IV hydration?
- A. 0.9% Normal saline ✅
- B. Distilled water
- C. 10% Dextrose
- D. Plasma
Answer & Explanation:
0.9% normal saline is isotonic and the most common IV fluid used to maintain hydration and restore extracellular volume.
Q69. The nurse notes that a patient’s urine output is less than 30 mL/hour. This condition is called:
- A. Anuria
- B. Polyuria
- C. Oliguria ✅
- D. Dysuria
Answer & Explanation:
Oliguria = urine output less than 400 mL/day (or <30 mL/hour). It may indicate kidney dysfunction or dehydration.
Q70. Which of the following is the safest injection site for intramuscular injection in adults?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle ✅
- D. Rectus femoris muscle
Answer & Explanation:
The ventrogluteal site is the safest for IM injections due to fewer blood vessels and nerves, lowering the risk of complications.
Q71. What is the universal blood donor type?
- A. A+
- B. B–
- C. O– ✅
- D. AB+
Answer & Explanation:
O– blood can be given to all patients regardless of their blood type, making it the universal donor.
Q72. Which condition requires the use of droplet precautions?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Influenza ✅
- C. MRSA
- D. Scabies
Answer & Explanation:
Droplet precautions (mask, gown, gloves) are used for respiratory infections like influenza, pertussis, and meningitis, which spread via large droplets.
Q73. Which position is recommended for a patient in shock?
- A. Supine with head elevated
- B. Trendelenburg ✅
- C. Sitting upright
- D. Left lateral
Answer & Explanation:
In shock, placing the patient in Trendelenburg position (feet elevated) helps increase venous return and perfusion to vital organs.
Q74. The nurse notes that a patient has edema in the lower legs. This is often caused by:
- A. Dehydration
- B. Fluid retention ✅
- C. High protein levels
- D. Exercise
Answer & Explanation:
Edema is swelling due to fluid retention in the interstitial tissues, commonly caused by heart failure, kidney disease, or liver problems.
Q75. Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest oxygen concentration?
- A. Nasal cannula
- B. Simple face mask
- C. Non-rebreather mask ✅
- D. Venturi mask
Answer & Explanation:
The non-rebreather mask delivers up to 100% oxygen and is used in emergencies for critically ill patients.
Q76. What is the normal range of fasting blood glucose in adults?
- A. 40–80 mg/dL
- B. 70–100 mg/dL ✅
- C. 100–150 mg/dL
- D. 150–200 mg/dL
Answer & Explanation:
Normal fasting blood glucose is 70–100 mg/dL. Levels above 126 mg/dL may indicate diabetes mellitus.
Q77. Which of the following foods is high in potassium?
- A. Rice
- B. Banana ✅
- C. Bread
- D. Milk
Answer & Explanation:
Bananas are rich in potassium, which helps regulate heart rhythm, nerve function, and fluid balance.
Q78. Which nursing action is most important for a patient at risk of falls?
- A. Keeping lights off at night
- B. Using bed alarms ✅
- C. Locking the room door
- D. Removing side rails
Answer & Explanation:
Bed alarms and safety checks are essential fall-prevention measures, especially for elderly or confused patients.
Q79. A patient with a urinary catheter develops fever and cloudy urine. The nurse suspects:
- A. Kidney stones
- B. UTI ✅
- C. Liver disease
- D. Diabetes
Answer & Explanation:
Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) is common if catheters are not managed properly. Symptoms include fever, cloudy urine, and discomfort.
Q80. Which nutrient is the main source of energy for the body?
- A. Protein
- B. Carbohydrates ✅
- C. Fats
- D. Vitamins
Answer & Explanation:
Carbohydrates are the body’s primary source of energy. Proteins and fats also provide energy but have additional vital roles in body function.
Q81. Which is the best nursing intervention to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Keep the patient in the same position
- B. Reposition the patient every 2 hours ✅
- C. Limit fluid intake
- D. Apply restraints
Answer & Explanation:
Frequent repositioning reduces prolonged pressure on skin, preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden patients.
Q82. A patient with diabetes is at risk for:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Infection ✅
- C. Hypothermia
- D. Fractures
Answer & Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus increases infection risk due to poor wound healing and impaired immune function.
Q83. Which is the correct angle for administering a subcutaneous injection?
- A. 15°
- B. 30°
- C. 45°–90° ✅
- D. 120°
Answer & Explanation:
Subcutaneous injections are given at 45° or 90°, depending on needle length and patient body fat.
Q84. Which electrolyte imbalance causes muscle cramps and tetany?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia ✅
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer & Explanation:
Low calcium (hypocalcemia) leads to muscle spasms, cramps, and tetany due to increased nerve excitability.
Q85. What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry?
- A. Improve digestion
- B. Prevent pneumonia ✅
- C. Increase blood pressure
- D. Improve sleep
Answer & Explanation:
Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing, helping prevent atelectasis and pneumonia after surgery.
Q86. A patient receiving IV potassium must be monitored closely for:
- A. Arrhythmias ✅
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Anemia
Answer & Explanation:
Excess potassium can cause dangerous arrhythmias. IV potassium must be infused slowly with cardiac monitoring.
Q87. Which infection requires airborne precautions?
- A. Influenza
- B. MRSA
- C. Tuberculosis ✅
- D. Salmonella
Answer & Explanation:
Airborne precautions (N95 mask, negative-pressure room) are used for TB, measles, and chickenpox, as they spread via tiny airborne particles.
Q88. Which lab value indicates anemia?
- A. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL ✅
- B. Platelets 300,000
- C. WBC 8,000
- D. Glucose 90 mg/dL
Answer & Explanation:
Normal hemoglobin is 12–16 g/dL (female) and 14–18 g/dL (male). A level of 8 g/dL confirms anemia.
Q89. Which food should be avoided in a patient on low-cholesterol diet?
- A. Eggs (yolk) ✅
- B. Apple
- C. Brown rice
- D. Fish
Answer & Explanation:
Egg yolks, fatty meats, and fried foods are high in cholesterol and should be limited in heart patients.
Q90. What is the antidote for heparin overdose?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Protamine sulfate ✅
- C. Atropine
- D. Naloxone
Answer & Explanation:
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin toxicity, while Vitamin K is used for warfarin overdose.
Q91. Which assessment finding indicates dehydration?
- A. Edema
- B. Dry mucous membranes ✅
- C. Low urine specific gravity
- D. High blood pressure
Answer & Explanation:
Dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and low urine output are signs of dehydration.
Q92. What is the normal pH of human blood?
- A. 6.8–7.0
- B. 7.0–7.2
- C. 7.35–7.45 ✅
- D. 7.5–8.0
Answer & Explanation:
The normal blood pH is 7.35–7.45. Values below 7.35 = acidosis; above 7.45 = alkalosis.
Q93. Which type of precaution is used for a patient with HIV/AIDS?
- A. Airborne
- B. Droplet
- C. Standard precautions ✅
- D. Contact
Answer & Explanation:
Standard precautions (gloves, safe sharps disposal) are used for all patients, including those with HIV/AIDS.
Q94. Which organ is primarily responsible for detoxification of drugs?
- A. Heart
- B. Lungs
- C. Liver ✅
- D. Kidneys
Answer & Explanation:
The liver metabolizes and detoxifies drugs. Impaired liver function can lead to drug toxicity.
Q95. Which electrolyte imbalance is most dangerous for the heart?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia ✅
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer & Explanation:
High potassium (hyperkalemia) can cause fatal arrhythmias, making it the most dangerous electrolyte imbalance for the heart.
Q96. What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired infections?
- A. Indwelling urinary catheters ✅
- B. Blood transfusion
- C. Airborne particles
- D. Food contamination
Answer & Explanation:
Catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) are the most frequent hospital-acquired infections.
Q97. Which assessment tool is used to measure level of consciousness?
- A. Braden scale
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale ✅
- C. APGAR score
- D. Pain scale
Answer & Explanation:
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates eye, verbal, and motor responses to assess consciousness in trauma and critically ill patients.
Q98. Which PPE should be worn when caring for a TB patient?
- A. Surgical mask
- B. Gloves only
- C. N95 respirator ✅
- D. Face shield
Answer & Explanation:
TB requires an N95 respirator to filter airborne pathogens and protect healthcare workers.
Q99. Which vaccine prevents cervical cancer?
- A. Hepatitis B
- B. HPV vaccine ✅
- C. Polio vaccine
- D. BCG vaccine
Answer & Explanation:
The HPV vaccine prevents infection from human papillomavirus, which is linked to cervical cancer.
Q100. A patient with COPD should receive oxygen therapy at:
- A. 1–2 L/min ✅
- B. 4–6 L/min
- C. 6–8 L/min
- D. 10–12 L/min
Answer & Explanation:
In COPD patients, high oxygen flow can reduce respiratory drive. Safe administration is 1–2 L/min via nasal cannula.
You have completed Part 2 of NCLEX Fundamentals of Nursing MCQs (51–100) with answers and explanations. By practicing these questions, you are reinforcing essential concepts that are repeatedly tested in the NCLEX exam.
👉 Continue your journey with Part 3 (101–150) for even more practice.
👉 Share this resource with your fellow nursing students preparing for NCLEX.
Next Part : NCLEX Fundamentals of Nursing Part-3
You’ve just completed NCLEX Fundamentals of Nursing MCQs Part 2 (Questions 51–100) with detailed answers and explanations. Practicing regularly with such question banks helps you master key nursing concepts and apply them in real exam scenarios. For more study material, don’t forget to check Part 1 and upcoming parts of our NCLEX series, covering Pharmacology, Physiology, Anatomy, Microbiology, and more. Stay consistent, keep practicing, and you’ll be one step closer to success in your NCLEX exam. 🚀