LSAT Full-Length Practice Test (Free with Explanations)
📌 Why Take This Practice Test?
Preparing for the Law School Admission Test (LSAT) is all about practice. Our free full-length LSAT practice test with explanations mirrors the official exam format — giving you realistic timed sections, detailed answer explanations, and a sample writing prompt. Whether you’re aiming for a top score or just starting your prep, this guide will help you practice under real test-like conditions.
📝 Exam Format Recap
The LSAT is a half-day, standardized exam required for admission to law schools in the United States and Canada.
- Logical Reasoning (2 sections) → 50 questions
- Analytical Reasoning (Logic Games) → 25 questions
- Reading Comprehension → 25 questions
- Writing Sample → 1 essay (unscored, but required)
LSAT Full-Length Practice Test – Section 1 (Logical Reasoning, Q1–25)
Test your ability to evaluate arguments, spot assumptions, and strengthen/weaken reasoning.
Q1.
A recent study found that drivers who listen to classical music tend to drive more safely than those who listen to rock music. Therefore, listening to classical music makes people safer drivers.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
A) Most drivers who listen to classical music are older than those who listen to rock.
B) Many drivers listen to both classical and rock music depending on mood.
C) Classical music has been shown to lower stress levels in general.
D) Rock music listeners are more likely to drive at night.
E) Traffic accidents occur equally in cities with both music preferences.
✅ Answer: A
📘 Explanation: The argument assumes music type directly causes safer driving. If most classical listeners are older (and possibly safer drivers regardless of music), that undermines causation.
Q2.
Company X claims that their organic juice helps people lose weight. A survey found that 70% of people who drank the juice lost weight within 2 months.
Which flaw most clearly weakens Company X’s claim?
A) The survey didn’t include people who did not drink the juice.
B) Organic juice is more expensive than regular juice.
C) People in the survey exercised more than average.
D) Only women participated in the survey.
E) Juice drinkers reported feeling healthier.
✅ Answer: A
📘 Explanation: Without a control group, we can’t conclude that the juice caused the weight loss.
Q3.
Some critics argue that movies based on books are less original than movies written directly for the screen. However, many such adapted movies have won awards for creativity.
Which principle best justifies the critics’ argument?
A) Creativity is measured by awards won.
B) True creativity requires complete originality.
C) Adaptations can never be as profitable as originals.
D) Movies adapted from books often change too much of the story.
E) Audiences prefer original movies.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: Critics argue lack of originality = lack of creativity. This aligns with the principle that true creativity requires originality.
Q4.
A nutritionist claims that eating more fiber reduces the risk of colon cancer. A study of 2,000 people showed that those with high-fiber diets had a 20% lower risk.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the nutritionist’s claim?
A) The participants self-reported their diet habits.
B) High-fiber diets were also associated with more exercise.
C) The study controlled for exercise, smoking, and genetics.
D) Colon cancer rates are rising worldwide.
E) Many people dislike eating high-fiber foods.
✅ Answer: C
📘 Explanation: By controlling for other variables, the study isolates fiber as a likely cause.
Q5.
City council: “Installing more surveillance cameras will reduce crime.”
Critic: “But crime did not decrease in City Z after they installed cameras.”
Which reasoning flaw is the critic making?
A) Assuming correlation proves causation.
B) Generalizing from a single case.
C) Ignoring alternative explanations.
D) Confusing necessary with sufficient conditions.
E) Misinterpreting statistical averages.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: Just because one city didn’t see results doesn’t mean cameras never reduce crime. That’s a hasty generalization.
Q6.
Scientists discovered a new medication that lowers cholesterol. After six months, 80% of patients had improved results.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the conclusion that the medication is effective?
A) Many patients also improved their diet during the study.
B) The study included a placebo group that did not show improvement.
C) The patients in the study were all over 50 years old.
D) The medication is more expensive than existing treatments.
E) Some patients dropped out of the study early.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: A placebo group showing no improvement strengthens the claim that the medication itself is effective.
Q7.
Advertisement: “Our air purifiers remove 99% of all household dust, so buying one will guarantee you cleaner air.”
Which flaw is present in the reasoning?
A) It assumes dust is the only pollutant in air.
B) It confuses percentage with absolute number.
C) It assumes buyers will clean regularly.
D) It ignores the cost of the purifier.
E) It overlooks customer satisfaction.
✅ Answer: A
📘 Explanation: The argument assumes that dust is the only factor in clean air, ignoring pollen, mold, or chemicals.
Q8.
Economist: “Countries with more educated populations tend to have higher GDP per capita. Therefore, increasing education levels causes economic growth.”
Which of the following, if true, weakens the economist’s claim?
A) Some countries with high education levels still have low GDP.
B) Wealthier countries can afford better education systems.
C) Many people pursue education for non-economic reasons.
D) The study included only European countries.
E) Education increases job opportunities.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: Reverse causation: It may be that wealth causes education, not education causes wealth.
Q9.
Critic: “Newspaper articles are less reliable now because many reporters publish stories online without fact-checking.”
Which assumption underlies the critic’s argument?
A) Online stories are always less reliable than print.
B) Fact-checking is essential for reliability.
C) Readers prefer online sources over newspapers.
D) Reporters are underpaid and rushed.
E) Online publications are more popular.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: The critic assumes lack of fact-checking = unreliability, which drives the argument.
Q10.
A recent study showed that people who drink green tea daily live longer.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this claim?
A) Green tea drinkers also tend to eat healthier diets.
B) Green tea contains antioxidants linked to longevity.
C) Coffee drinkers live shorter lives.
D) Green tea is more popular in Asian countries.
E) Many green tea drinkers are older adults.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: The presence of antioxidants provides a biological mechanism linking tea to longevity.
Q11.
All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly. Therefore, some roses fade quickly.
What logical flaw does this argument make?
A) It assumes what is true of the whole is true of a part.
B) It confuses “some” with “all.”
C) It improperly infers about roses from flowers.
D) It assumes roses are the only flowers.
E) It overlooks that roses may not fade at all.
✅ Answer: C
📘 Explanation: Just because some flowers fade quickly doesn’t mean roses specifically do.
Q12.
Politician: “Raising taxes always harms the economy. Therefore, we should never raise taxes.”
Which is the best criticism?
A) Higher taxes sometimes fund investments that boost the economy.
B) People dislike higher taxes.
C) Many countries with high taxes remain wealthy.
D) Taxation is complicated and varies.
E) Economists often disagree about taxes.
✅ Answer: A
📘 Explanation: The politician assumes raising taxes is always harmful, but sometimes higher taxes can benefit the economy via public spending.
Q13.
Teacher: “No student who studies regularly fails. Maria studies regularly. Therefore, Maria will not fail.”
This argument is an example of:
A) Flawed reasoning.
B) Circular reasoning.
C) Valid deductive reasoning.
D) Inductive reasoning.
E) Statistical sampling.
✅ Answer: C
📘 Explanation: The reasoning is logically valid: If no regular student fails, and Maria studies regularly, she cannot fail.
Q14.
Critic: “Television encourages violence because violent shows are popular and crime rates are increasing.”
Which reasoning flaw is most evident?
A) Assuming popularity equals influence.
B) Assuming correlation proves causation.
C) Overlooking other causes of crime.
D) Ignoring data that contradicts the claim.
E) Confusing crime depiction with endorsement.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: Correlation between TV violence and crime doesn’t prove causation.
Q15.
Doctor: “My patient took a new herbal medicine and then recovered. Therefore, the medicine caused the recovery.”
Which principle, if true, most weakens the doctor’s reasoning?
A) Patients sometimes recover without treatment.
B) Herbal medicines are not well-studied.
C) Doctors often prescribe multiple medicines.
D) Recovery can be slow for many illnesses.
E) Patients sometimes believe treatment helps even when it doesn’t.
✅ Answer: A
📘 Explanation: The flaw is post hoc reasoning: recovery might have occurred naturally, not due to the medicine.
Q16.
Sociologist: “Communities with more public parks have lower crime rates. Therefore, building more parks will reduce crime.”
Which flaw is present?
A) It assumes all parks are safe.
B) It ignores other factors that may lower crime.
C) It assumes crime is the only issue in communities.
D) It overlooks the cost of building parks.
E) It ignores differences in city size.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: Correlation ≠ causation. Other factors may explain lower crime, not the parks themselves.
Q17.
A company reports: “Our product sales doubled after our new ad campaign, so the campaign caused the increase.”
Which fact, if true, most weakens the claim?
A) The campaign was expensive.
B) A competitor went out of business at the same time.
C) Sales had been falling the previous year.
D) Customers liked the new ads.
E) The company improved product quality.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: If a competitor’s exit explains sales growth, the ad campaign may not be the cause.
Q18.
All professional athletes exercise daily. John exercises daily. Therefore, John is a professional athlete.
What flaw is present?
A) It assumes cause and effect.
B) It affirms the consequent.
C) It confuses probability with certainty.
D) It misuses statistical data.
E) It overlooks exceptions.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: The flaw is affirming the consequent: Just because all athletes exercise doesn’t mean everyone who exercises is an athlete.
Q19.
Critic: “Modern art is not real art because it does not follow traditional rules.”
Which logical flaw is present?
A) Defining art too broadly.
B) Using a narrow definition to dismiss alternatives.
C) Assuming popularity equals value.
D) Ignoring expert opinions.
E) Overlooking historical changes in art.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: The critic restricts the definition of art to “traditional rules,” excluding valid modern forms.
Q20.
Survey: “Most people prefer spending on experiences rather than material goods.”
Which conclusion is most strongly supported?
A) People always regret buying goods.
B) Experiences bring more lasting satisfaction.
C) Everyone should stop buying material goods.
D) Most people enjoy vacations more than clothes.
E) Spending on experiences is becoming more popular.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: The best-supported inference is that experiences are seen as giving more lasting satisfaction.
Q21.
A study shows: Students who sleep 8+ hours score higher on tests.
Which fact, if true, best explains this result?
A) Students who sleep more are often healthier and better focused.
B) Many students drink coffee to stay awake.
C) Some students perform well with little sleep.
D) Test anxiety affects sleep patterns.
E) Older students need less sleep.
✅ Answer: A
📘 Explanation: Better sleep → better focus → better test performance.
Q22.
Philosopher: “If actions are determined, then free will is an illusion. If free will is real, actions cannot be determined.”
Which reasoning technique is used?
A) Circular reasoning.
B) Causal analysis.
C) Conditional reasoning.
D) Inductive generalization.
E) Analogy.
✅ Answer: C
📘 Explanation: This uses conditional reasoning (“if…then”).
Q23.
Historian: “Every major empire eventually declines. Therefore, the current global powers will also decline.”
Which assumption underlies this argument?
A) Decline always happens in the same way.
B) The present is no different from the past.
C) Empires rise for the same reasons.
D) Current global powers are empires.
E) Economic growth always reverses.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: The argument assumes the future mirrors the past without exception.
Q24.
Scientist: “All swans observed so far are white. Therefore, all swans are white.”
This reasoning is best described as:
A) Deductive and valid.
B) Inductive but not conclusive.
C) Circular reasoning.
D) Analogy-based.
E) False cause.
✅ Answer: B
📘 Explanation: This is inductive reasoning: generalizing from limited evidence, not a guarantee.
Q25.
Critic: “Movies with big budgets are always better than low-budget films.”
Which of the following most seriously weakens this argument?
A) Some low-budget films have won awards for quality.
B) Movie budgets vary widely.
C) Actors prefer high-budget films.
D) Audiences enjoy expensive special effects.
E) Many high-budget films are poorly reviewed.
✅ Answer: A
Section 2 – Analytical Reasoning (Logic Games) (Q26–50)
Includes grouping, sequencing, and hybrid games. Each game comes with rules, diagrams, deductions, and solutions.
Game 1 (Q26–30): Grouping Game
Six law students (A, B, C, D, E, F) are divided into two study groups of three.
Rules:
- A and B cannot be in the same group.
- D must be with E.
- F cannot be with C.
Q26. If A is in Group 1 with D and E, which of the following must be true?
a) B is in Group 1
b) C is in Group 2
c) F is in Group 1
d) C is in Group 1
Answer: b) C is in Group 2
Explanation: If A, D, E are in Group 1 → Group 1 is full. B cannot be with A, so B goes to Group 2. F cannot be with C, so only option is C with B, F in Group 2 → so C is in Group 2.
Q27. Which student must always be with E?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) F
Answer: c) D
Explanation: Rule 2 says D must be with E.
Q28. If B is in Group 2 with F, which group must C be in?
a) Group 1
b) Group 2
Answer: a) Group 1
Explanation: F and C cannot be together → so C must be in Group 1.
Q29. Which of the following could be a complete Group 1?
a) A, D, E
b) B, D, F
c) A, B, C
d) C, D, E
Answer: a) A, D, E
Explanation: Fits all rules.
Q30. If A is in Group 2, which of the following must be true?
a) B is in Group 1
b) D and E are in Group 1
c) F is in Group 2
d) C is in Group 2
Answer: b) D and E are in Group 1
Explanation: To balance groups, D & E must go opposite A.
Game 1 (Q31–36): Library Shelves (Ordering/Sequencing)
Six books (A, B, C, D, E, F) are placed on a single shelf from left to right.
Rules:
- A must be immediately left of B.
- C must be left of D (not necessarily adjacent).
- E cannot be at either end.
- F must be right of B.
Q31. Which of the following could be the order of all six books?
(A) A B F E C D
(B) B A E C D F
(C) C D A B F E
(D) A B E F C D
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A left of B, F after B, E not at end → satisfied only in option D.
Q32. If C is immediately before D, which could be true?
(A) F is last
(B) A is first
(C) E is first
(D) C is last
Answer: (A)
Explanation: If C–D are together, A–B must come before F, leaving F as last.
Q33. Which must always be true?
(A) A is before F
(B) C is before B
(C) E is before A
(D) D is before F
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Since A–B pair comes before F, A must always precede F.
Q34. If E is fourth, which is correct?
(A) A is second
(B) C is first
(C) F is last
(D) B is sixth
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A–B before F, with E locked in 4th, F must go at the end.
Q35. Which cannot be true?
(A) A is first
(B) E is third
(C) F is sixth
(D) C is second
Answer: (D)
Explanation: If C is 2nd, then A–B–F block collapses incorrectly.
Q36. If D is fifth, which must be true?
(A) F is sixth
(B) A is second
(C) E is third
(D) B is fourth
Answer: (A).
Game 2 (Q37–42): Office Assignments (Grouping)
Five employees (G, H, J, K, L) assigned to two projects (X, Y).
Rules:
- Each employee works on exactly one project.
- J and K cannot be on the same project.
- H must be with L.
- At least two employees per project.
Q37. Which assignment is valid?
(A) X: G, J, H – Y: K, L
(B) X: G, K, H, L – Y: J
(C) X: J, L – Y: K, H, G
(D) X: H, L, J – Y: K, G
Answer: (D).
Q38. If J is on X, who must be on Y?
(A) K
(B) H
(C) L
(D) G
Answer: (A)
Explanation: J and K must be split.
Q39. If G is on Y, which could be true?
(A) H and L on X
(B) H and L on Y
(C) J on Y
(D) K on Y
Answer: (B).
Q40. Which must always be true?
(A) H and L together
(B) J and H together
(C) G and K together
(D) J and L together
Answer: (A).
Q41. If team X has exactly 2 members, who must they be?
(A) H, L
(B) J, G
(C) J, H
(D) K, L
Answer: (A).
Q42. If J is with G, which is true?
(A) K with H and L
(B) J with K
(C) L with G
(D) G with K
Answer: (A).
Game 3 (Q43–48): Conference Schedule (Matching)
Three speakers (M, N, O) give talks in three sessions (Morning, Afternoon, Evening). Topics: Law, Tech, Finance. Each speaker gives exactly one talk.
Rules:
- M speaks on Law.
- O cannot speak in the Morning.
- Finance is in Afternoon.
- N does not give the Tech talk.
Q43. Who gives the Afternoon talk?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) O
(D) Cannot be determined
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Finance fixed in Afternoon; O only possible.
Q44. If O speaks on Finance, what is true?
(A) N must take Evening
(B) M must take Morning
(C) Tech is in Evening
(D) N speaks on Law
Answer: (B).
Q45. Which assignment is valid?
(A) Morning–M (Law), Afternoon–O (Finance), Evening–N (Tech)
(B) Morning–M (Law), Afternoon–N (Finance), Evening–O (Tech)
(C) Morning–N (Law), Afternoon–O (Finance), Evening–M (Tech)
(D) Morning–M (Finance), Afternoon–N (Tech), Evening–O (Law)
Answer: (A).
Q46. Which must always be true?
(A) M speaks in Morning
(B) O speaks on Finance
(C) Tech is in Evening
(D) N speaks last
Answer: (A).
Q47. If N speaks in Evening, then?
(A) Tech is Evening
(B) Finance is Morning
(C) Law is Afternoon
(D) O is Morning
Answer: (A).
Q48. Which cannot be true?
(A) O speaks in Afternoon
(B) N speaks on Finance
(C) M speaks on Law
(D) Finance is Afternoon
Answer: (B).
Game 4 (Q49–55): Court Hearings (Hybrid Sequencing + Grouping)
Five cases (P, Q, R, S, T) scheduled across Mon–Fri (1/day).
Rules:
- R before S.
- P on Monday or Tuesday.
- T is not Friday.
- Q must be the day immediately after R.
Q49. Which must be true?
(A) R before Q
(B) Q before R
(C) S before R
(D) T on Friday
Answer: (A).
Q50. If P is Tuesday, which is true?
(A) R on Monday
(B) Q on Wednesday
(C) T on Thursday
(D) S on Friday
Answer: (B).
Q51. Which is a valid sequence?
(A) P, R, Q, S, T
(B) R, Q, P, T, S
(C) P, S, R, Q, T
(D) P, R, Q, T, S
Answer: (D).
Q52. Which cannot be true?
(A) R Monday
(B) Q Tuesday
(C) T Wednesday
(D) S Friday
Answer: (B).
Q53. If T is Thursday, which is correct?
(A) S Friday
(B) Q Friday
(C) P Monday
(D) R Friday
Answer: (A).
Q54. If S is Friday, then?
(A) R is Wednesday
(B) Q is Thursday
(C) T is Tuesday
(D) P is Monday
Answer: (B).
Q55. Which must always be true?
(A) R immediately before Q
(B) P is Monday
(C) T is Friday
(D) S before R
Answer: (A).
Section 3 – Reading Comprehension (Q56–80)
You’ll read passages (single & comparative) and answer related questions. Each question has answer + explanation.
Passages cover law, science, humanities, and comparative reading. Each question has step-by-step explanations.
Passage 1 (Q56–62): Constitutional Law
Excerpt: The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a system of checks and balances to prevent any single branch of government from becoming too powerful. Modern scholars debate whether the judiciary has taken a disproportionately strong role in shaping policy through judicial review.
Q56. What is the main idea?
(A) The framers opposed judicial power.
(B) Judicial review may upset balance of power.
(C) Congress has lost all authority.
(D) Checks and balances no longer exist.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Passage contrasts framers’ intention vs. judiciary’s modern influence.
Q57. Which is supported by the passage?
(A) The framers did not allow judicial review.
(B) Judicial power has expanded.
(C) Judicial review is unconstitutional.
(D) The executive branch dominates.
Answer: (B).
Q58. The phrase “disproportionately strong role” suggests:
(A) Judiciary exceeds intended limits.
(B) Judiciary is weak.
(C) Judiciary follows framers’ vision.
(D) Judiciary is powerless.
Answer: (A).
Q59. Which inference can be drawn?
(A) Judicial review affects policy.
(B) Framers wanted judges to write laws.
(C) Checks and balances are obsolete.
(D) Congress approves judicial rulings.
Answer: (A).
Q60. The author’s tone is:
(A) Neutral but analytical
(B) Sarcastic
(C) Hostile
(D) Celebratory
Answer: (A).
Q61. If judiciary’s role were reduced, what would happen?
(A) Policy-making may shift to Congress.
(B) Supreme Court would dissolve.
(C) Executive branch would weaken.
(D) Checks and balances vanish.
Answer: (A).
Q62. Which title best fits?
(A) “Congress vs. Judiciary”
(B) “Judicial Review and Separation of Powers”
(C) “The Death of Democracy”
(D) “The Framers’ Mistake”
Answer: (B).
Passage 2 (Q63–69): Climate Science
Excerpt: Rising carbon dioxide levels have accelerated global warming. Yet, scientists warn that localized climate patterns make projections complex. Adaptation strategies require collaboration between governments, communities, and industries.
Q63. Main idea?
(A) Climate change is caused only by industries.
(B) CO₂ complicates climate predictions.
(C) Adaptation requires collaboration.
(D) Climate patterns are simple.
Answer: (C).
Q64. Which factor complicates predictions?
(A) Localized climate variations
(B) Political disagreements
(C) Industrial growth
(D) Natural disasters only
Answer: (A).
Q65. What does the passage imply?
(A) Adaptation is unnecessary.
(B) Global warming is uniform worldwide.
(C) Local differences affect adaptation.
(D) CO₂ has no effect on warming.
Answer: (C).
Q66. Tone of the passage?
(A) Alarmist
(B) Analytical and cautious
(C) Humorous
(D) Hostile
Answer: (B).
Passage 2 (Climate Science, cont.)
Q67. Which is supported by the passage?
(A) Climate change affects all equally.
(B) Collaboration is key to adaptation.
(C) Governments alone can solve it.
(D) Science has all answers already.
Answer: (B).
Explanation: Passage highlights multi-stakeholder collaboration.
Q68. Which title best?
(A) “CO₂: The Only Problem”
(B) “Complexity of Climate Change Adaptation”
(C) “Why Climate Predictions Fail”
(D) “Science vs. Politics”
Answer: (B).
Explanation: Matches theme — complexity + adaptation.
Q69. Inference?
(A) Localized studies are valuable.
(B) Only global models matter.
(C) Climate adaptation is impossible.
(D) Industries ignore the issue.
Answer: (A).
Explanation: Passage notes localized variations complicate predictions.
Passage 3 (Comparative Passages – History)
Passage A: 19th-century historians emphasized national heroes and battles to construct patriotic identities.
Passage B: Modern historians highlight cultural, social, and economic movements, arguing collective forces shape nations.
Q70. Main difference?
(A) A stresses individuals; B stresses collective forces.
(B) A praises modern historians; B criticizes them.
(C) A denies patriotism; B promotes it.
(D) Both reject history writing.
Answer: (A).
Q71. Shared assumption?
(A) Nations require a sense of identity.
(B) Individuals alone shape nations.
(C) Collective forces are irrelevant.
(D) History has no purpose.
Answer: (A).
Q72. If a historian combined both, they’d argue:
(A) Both individuals and collective forces matter.
(B) Only wars shape nations.
(C) Identity cannot be studied.
(D) Collective factors are illusions.
Answer: (A).
Q73. Passage A would most likely criticize B for:
(A) Ignoring leadership and heroes.
(B) Overstating patriotism.
(C) Denying wars existed.
(D) Rejecting nations entirely.
Answer: (A).
Q74. Passage B would most likely criticize A for:
(A) Oversimplifying history by focusing only on individuals.
(B) Highlighting cultural analysis.
(C) Avoiding identity altogether.
(D) Recognizing collective forces.
Answer: (A).
Q75. Which statement would both historians accept?
(A) Nations construct identities through historical narratives.
(B) Heroes are the only basis for identity.
(C) History should avoid nationalism.
(D) Economic forces never matter.
Answer: (A).
Q76. Best title?
(A) “Heroes vs. Movements: Competing Views of National Identity”
(B) “The Death of Patriotism”
(C) “Why History Is Useless”
(D) “Nations Without Identity”
Answer: (A).
Passage 4 (Q77–80: Comparative Science Passages)
Passage A: Research on renewable energy highlights solar power’s scalability and declining costs.
Passage B: Other researchers stress wind and hydro, warning solar intermittency makes it less reliable.
Q77. Main point of disagreement?
(A) Which renewable source is most sustainable.
(B) Whether fossil fuels should continue.
(C) Whether climate change exists.
(D) If energy policy matters.
Answer: (A).
Q78. Which inference from Passage A?
(A) Solar could eventually outcompete fossil fuels.
(B) Wind is the best option.
(C) Hydro is costliest.
(D) Intermittency is not an issue.
Answer: (A).
Q79. Passage B would agree that:
(A) Solar power faces reliability problems.
(B) Solar is the only path forward.
(C) Renewable energy is unnecessary.
(D) Fossil fuels are the future.
Answer: (A).
Q80. Best combined interpretation?
(A) A mix of renewable sources is likely needed.
(B) Only solar can power the world.
(C) Wind and hydro are irrelevant.
(D) Renewables cannot replace fossil fuels.
Answer: (A).
Section 4 – Writing Sample (Essay Prompt + Guidance)
An unscored but required essay task. Practice developing structured arguments.
🖊️ Sample Response (Model Essay)
Introduction
The city council faces a challenging but meaningful decision: whether to invest in a new public library or to expand public transportation. While both options have undeniable benefits, I would argue that expanding public transportation is the superior choice for the long-term well-being of the city and its residents.
Body – Main Argument
Public transportation expansion directly addresses pressing urban issues such as traffic congestion, air pollution, and accessibility. By providing affordable and reliable transportation, the city can reduce dependency on private vehicles, thereby lowering carbon emissions and contributing to environmental sustainability. Furthermore, improved public transit allows low-income residents, students, and workers to access opportunities that might otherwise remain out of reach, fostering equity across the community.
Body – Acknowledging the Other Side
Admittedly, a new public library would serve as a valuable educational and cultural asset. Libraries promote literacy, lifelong learning, and community engagement. However, many of these functions are increasingly available through digital platforms and existing library networks, which already provide e-books and remote access to resources.
Conclusion
Although building a new library would be beneficial, expanding public transportation offers broader and more urgent advantages. It not only supports environmental goals but also promotes economic mobility and social inclusion. For these reasons, the city should prioritize expanding its public transportation system.
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